Unique Top-selling OMSB_OEN Exams - New 2024 OMSB Pratice Exam
OMSB Certification Dumps OMSB_OEN Exam for Full Questions - Exam Study Guide
NEW QUESTION # 46
A nurse is preparing to give health education for a client on hemodialysis.
What instruction the nurse will include in the teaching plan regarding dietary restriction?
- A. Sodium intake is restricted to 4-5 g/kg
- B. Potassium intake is restricted to 3-4 g/kg
- C. Protein intake is restricted to 1.2-1.3 g/kg
- D. Fluid intake is restricted to 2000 ml/day
Answer: C
Explanation:
For clients on hemodialysis, protein intake is usually restricted to 1.2-1.3 g/kg of body weight to prevent the accumulation of waste products while still providing enough protein to maintain muscle mass and overall health. Sodium intake, fluid intake, and potassium intake are also important to monitor, but the specific restrictions for sodium and potassium vary based on individual needs and lab results. Fluid intake is typically individualized and may be more restrictive than 2000 ml/day.
NEW QUESTION # 47
The nurse assesses a patient with Chronic Renal Failure notes crackles in the lung bases, elevated blood pressure, and weight gain of 1 kg in one day.
Based on these finding, which of the following nursing diagnoses is the MOST appropriate for this patient?
- A. Imbalance nutrition more than body requirements related to dietary excess
- B. Increased cardiac output related to fluid overload
- C. Excess fluid volume related to the kidney's inability to maintain fluid balance
- D. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to interrupted arterial blood flow
Answer: C
Explanation:
The patient's symptoms-crackles in the lung bases, elevated blood pressure, and rapid weight gain-are indicative of fluid overload, which is a common issue in chronic renal failure due to the kidneys' inability to excrete excess fluid.
* Increased Cardiac Output Related to Fluid Overload: Increased cardiac output would not typically result from fluid overload; rather, fluid overload can lead to decreased cardiac output due to strain on the heart.
* Ineffective Tissue Perfusion Related to Interrupted Arterial Blood Flow: This diagnosis does not directly correlate with the symptoms of fluid overload observed in this patient.
* Imbalanced Nutrition More Than Body Requirements Related to Dietary Excess: This diagnosis is not relevant to the observed symptoms, which are more clearly related to fluid retention rather than dietary intake.
* Excess Fluid Volume Related to the Kidney's Inability to Maintain Fluid Balance: This is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis as it directly addresses the kidney's failure to regulate fluid balance, leading to the observed clinical signs.
References:
* National Kidney Foundation: Clinical Practice Guidelines for Chronic Kidney Disease
* Nursing Diagnosis Handbook: An Evidence-Based Guide to Planning Care
NEW QUESTION # 48
A nurse is providing health education and instructions to a woman who has been diagnosed with mastitis.
Which of the following statements if made by the woman indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. "1 need to take antibiotics and 1 will feel better in 24-48 hours."
- B. "Analgesia will help me to alleviate some of the discomfort."
- C. "1 need to stop breastfeeding until this condition resolves."
- D. "Warm compression to the breasts before feeding may be useful."
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Understanding Mastitis: Mastitis is an infection of the breast tissue that results in breast pain, swelling, warmth, and redness. It often occurs in breastfeeding women.
* Appropriate Management:
* Continue Breastfeeding: It is generally recommended to continue breastfeeding or pumping to relieve milk stasis and prevent further complications.
* Analgesia: Pain relief medications (analgesia) can help manage discomfort associated with mastitis.
* Antibiotics: Antibiotics are often prescribed, and improvement is typically seen within 24-48 hours.
* Warm Compression: Applying warm compresses before breastfeeding can help alleviate pain and improve milk flow.
* Incorrect Belief: The statement "I need to stop breastfeeding until this condition resolves" indicates a misunderstanding. Stopping breastfeeding can worsen the condition due to milk stasis and increased engorgement.
Conclusion: The statement indicates a need for further teaching as continuing breastfeeding is crucial for managing and resolving mastitis.References: Maternal and child nursing textbooks, NCLEX-RN review guides, clinical guidelines on breastfeeding and mastitis management.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following is an appropriate role of the parents in the teenage-stage of family developmental tasks?
- A. Preparing themselves for different roles
- B. Releasing young adults into work
- C. Coping with the energy depletion
- D. Balancing freedom with responsibility
Answer: D
Explanation:
During the teenage stage of family development, parents play a crucial role in helping their adolescents balance freedom with responsibility. This includes setting appropriate boundaries, providing guidance, and encouraging independence while ensuring that teenagers understand and meet their responsibilities. It is a critical period where parental support and oversight help teens develop into responsible adults.
NEW QUESTION # 50
A circulating nurse is caring for a patient who is undergoing to laparotomy under a general anesthesia in the Operating Room.
What is the PRIORITY nursing diagnosis the circulating nurse would include in the care plan?
- A. Risk for infection related to surgical incision
- B. Risk for anxiety related to surgery
- C. Risk for bleeding related to surgery
- D. Risk for injury related to positioning
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Role of Circulating Nurse: The circulating nurse manages the overall environment of the operating room, ensuring safety and coordination among the surgical team. They are responsible for maintaining patient safety, including correct positioning.
* Prioritizing Safety:
* Risk for anxiety: While relevant, managing anxiety is typically addressed preoperatively and postoperatively, not the immediate intraoperative period.
* Risk for bleeding: While bleeding is a concern, it is primarily monitored and managed by the surgical team.
* Risk for injury related to positioning: During surgery, improper positioning can lead to nerve damage, pressure sores, and musculoskeletal injuries. The circulating nurse must ensure that the
* patient is correctly positioned to avoid these injuries.
* Risk for infection: Preventing infection is crucial, but the sterile field and surgical techniques primarily address this risk.
Conclusion: The highest priority for the circulating nurse is to ensure the patient is correctly positioned to prevent any injury related to positioning, as this is a direct and immediate responsibility during the surgical procedure.References: Surgical nursing textbooks, NCLEX-RN review guides, AORN (Association of periOperative Registered Nurses) guidelines.
NEW QUESTION # 51
In a cardiotocogram (CTG) strip, the time from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction is called:
- A. Frequency
- B. Intensity
- C. Duration
- D. Range
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Cardiotocogram (CTG) Interpretation:
* CTG is used to monitor fetal heart rate and uterine contractions during labor.
* Definitions:
* Duration:The time from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction.
* Frequency:The interval between the start of one contraction to the start of the next.
* Intensity:The strength of the contraction.
* Range:Not a standard term used in CTG interpretation.
References:
* Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) guidelines on CTG interpretation
* American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG)
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following scenarios will present a LEAST professional obligation for unit in-charge role as an advocate?
- A. Human resources office rejection of three months sick leave claim submitted by novice nurse
- B. An elder patient challenges with need for social support for discharge related plans
- C. Requirement of total twenty full time nurses to support community during COVID-19
- D. Allocations and increment issues of a newly appointed nurses
Answer: D
Explanation:
As an advocate, a unit in-charge is responsible for supporting patients and staff in various professional and personal matters. Allocations and increment issues of newly appointed nurses, while important, generally fall under administrative and human resource functions and present the least direct professional obligation compared to issues that directly impact patient care and staff well-being. Ensuring adequate staffing during a crisis like COVID-19, advocating for an elder patient's social support needs for discharge, and addressing a nurse's sick leave claim have more immediate and significant implications for patient care and staff advocacy.
NEW QUESTION # 53
A nurse is caring for a patient with bacterial meningitis who develops high-grade fever and nasal discharge.
Which of the following is the FIRST nursing intervention for this patient?
- A. Control elevated body temperature
- B. Follow infection precautions for 24 hours after starting antibiotic treatment
- C. Assist with getting rest in a quiet dark room
- D. Encourage patient to stay hydrated with adequate oral intake
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first nursing intervention for a patient with bacterial meningitis who develops a high-grade fever and nasal discharge is to follow infection precautions. This is crucial to prevent the spread of the infection to others.
Bacterial meningitis is highly contagious, and infection control measures such as isolation and wearing protective gear should be implemented immediately upon diagnosis and continued for at least 24 hours after starting antibiotic treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 54
The nurse manager is providing orientation about the main goals of Occupational and Environmental Health Nursing (OEHN) to new appointed nurses.
Which statement by the nurse indicates the need for further instruction regarding the OEHN goal?
- A. "Develop disease prevention program"
- B. "Keep workers productive"
- C. "Promote health for entire population"
- D. "Manage minor workplace injuries"
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Occupational and Environmental Health Nursing (OEHN):
* OEHN focuses on health and safety in the workplace, aiming to prevent work-related injuries and illnesses and promote overall worker health.
* Goals of OEHN:
* Keep Workers Productive:Ensuring employees are healthy to maintain productivity.
* Manage Minor Workplace Injuries:Providing immediate care for minor injuries.
* Promote Health for Workers:Specific to workplace health, not the entire population.
* Develop Disease Prevention Programs:Creating programs to prevent workplace illnesses.
References:
* American Association of Occupational Health Nurses (AAOHN)
* Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 55
A nurse is assigned to care for a client diagnosed with brain cancer who is undergone radiation therapy. On assessment, the nurse notes cachexia.
Which of the following nursing measures would take FIRST for this client?
- A. Encourage small cold meals
- B. Encourage high protein and high calorie diet
- C. Encourage frequent oral hygiene
- D. Encourage daily physical activity
Answer: B
Explanation:
For a client with brain cancer undergoing radiation therapy and exhibiting cachexia, the first nursing measure should be to encourage a high protein and high-calorie diet.
* High Protein and High Calorie Diet: Cachexia is a severe form of malnutrition often seen in cancer patients, characterized by weight loss, muscle wasting, and decreasedquality of life. Ensuring adequate nutrition is crucial to improve strength, immune function, and overall well-being.
* Frequent Oral Hygiene: This is important, especially if the patient has oral side effects from radiation, but it does not address the primary issue of malnutrition.
* Daily Physical Activity: Beneficial for maintaining muscle mass and overall health but should be secondary to addressing severe nutritional deficits.
* Small Cold Meals: These may be more palatable if the patient has nausea but should also be high in calories and protein to combat cachexia.
References:
* American Cancer Society: Managing Cancer Cachexia
* Oncology Nursing Society (ONS): Nutrition and Cancer Care
NEW QUESTION # 56
What is the maximum duration for therapeutic bath effects for a 45-year-old patient with perineum irritation?
- A. 90 minutes
- B. 15 minutes
- C. 10 minutes
- D. 5 minutes
Answer: B
Explanation:
The maximum duration for the therapeutic effects of a bath, especially for conditions like perineum irritation, is generally 15 minutes. This duration is sufficient to provide relief and ensure the therapeutic benefits without causing skin maceration or other complications. Shorter durations may not provide adequate relief, and significantly longer baths can lead to issues like skin breakdown.
NEW QUESTION # 57
A 37 weeks pregnant woman presents with labor-like pain. She has mild uterine contractions (2-3 contractions in 10 minutes). On abdominal palpation, the nurse notes the fetus lie is transverse. The nurse reported to the doctor who confirm the malpresentation via an ultrasound.
The immediate nursing action is to:
- A. Provide oral fluids
- B. Offer the woman pain relief
- C. Monitor the progress of labor
- D. Prepare for cesarean section
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Transverse Lie and Delivery:
* A transverse lie means the fetus is positioned horizontally in the uterus, making vaginal delivery impossible and risky.
* In such cases, a cesarean section is usually required to safely deliver the baby.
* Immediate Nursing Action:
* Oral Fluids and Pain Relief:While important, these are not the immediate priorities in this scenario.
* Monitoring Labor:This is less relevant due to the malpresentation.
* Preparing for Cesarean Section:Given the transverse lie, this is the immediate and appropriate action to ensure the safety of both mother and baby.
References:
* American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists (ACOG)
* Mayo Clinic Guidelines on Labor and Delivery
NEW QUESTION # 58
A nurse is caring for an adult client with cancer who is complaining of acute pain.
The MOST appropriate pain assessment would be:
- A. Nonverbal cues from the client
- B. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention
- C. The client's pain rating
- D. The nurses' impression of the client's pain
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most appropriate way to assess pain is by asking the client to rate their pain. Pain is a subjective experience, meaning only the person experiencing it can accurately describe its intensity and quality. This is often done using a numerical scale (0-10) where the patient rates their pain, with 0 being no pain and 10 being the worst pain imaginable.
Nonverbal cues and the nurse's impression can provide additional information, but they are not as reliable as the patient's self-report. Pain relief after interventions helps evaluate the effectiveness of the pain management but does not assess the initial pain level.
NEW QUESTION # 59
A nurse is caring for a patient with retinal detachment who is posted for retinopexy surgery.
The INITIAL nursing intervention in order to maintain pressure for reattaching the sensory retina:
- A. Keep the patient in prone position
- B. Instruct the patient to avoid lying on the surgical side
- C. Provide eye patch with intact dressing
- D. Follow aseptic technique when cleaning the eye
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Retinal Detachment and Retinopexy:
* Retinal detachment is a serious condition where the retina peels away from its underlying layer.
Retinopexy surgery is performed to reattach the retina.
* Initial Nursing Interventions:
* Eye patch and dressing:Helps maintain pressure on the retina and prevent movement that could disrupt the reattachment process.
* Prone position and avoiding lying on surgical side:These are not specific standard initial interventions.
* Aseptic technique:Important but not the primary initial intervention for maintaining retinal attachment pressure.
References:
* American Academy of Ophthalmology (AAO) guidelines on Retinal Detachment
* Mayo Clinic guidelines on Retinopexy Surgery
NEW QUESTION # 60
A nurse caring for a 52-year-old patient who is scheduled for cardiac surgery understands that this patient would be experiencing which of the following type of stressors?
- A. Social
- B. Psychological
- C. Physical
- D. Physiological
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Types of Stressors in Preoperative Patients:
* Social:Related to interactions with family, friends, and community.
* Physical:Directly affecting the body, such as pain or physical disability.
* Physiological:Body's physical response to stress.
* Psychological:Mental and emotional response to stressors, including anxiety, fear, and worry about the surgery and its outcomes.
* Stressors for Cardiac Surgery Patients:
* Psychological:Patients scheduled for cardiac surgery often experience significant psychological stress due to fear of the procedure, potential complications, and concerns about recovery.
References:
* American Psychological Association (APA) on Stress and Surgery
* Mayo Clinic on Preoperative Anxiety and Stress Management
NEW QUESTION # 61
A 10-year-old child with asthma has been on Fluticasone metered-dose inhaler for six months with no improvement seen in the pulmonary function tests.
Which of the following strategies would help the child have better control over the symptoms?
- A. Increase oral fluid intake to loosen the secretions
- B. Perform chest physiotherapy every 4-6 hours
- C. Add Salmeterol metered-dose inhaler to the treatment regimen
- D. Change Fluticasone to intravenous hydrocortisone
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Asthma Management:
* When a patient does not respond to a single controller medication like Fluticasone (a corticosteroid), a step-up in therapy is often required.
* Treatment Strategies:
* Chest Physiotherapy and Increased Oral Fluid:Helpful but not primary interventions for improving pulmonary function in asthma.
* Intravenous Hydrocortisone:Typically for acute severe exacerbations, not chronic management.
* Adding Salmeterol (Long-acting Beta Agonist):Combined with an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS), it can improve asthma control by reducing symptoms and preventing exacerbations.
References:
* Global Initiative for Asthma (GINA) guidelines
* National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI)
NEW QUESTION # 62
A patient with a history angina pectoris brought by to the Emergency Department complaining of severe chest pain. The patient informs the nurse that he did not take nitroglycerine tablet.
Which of the following assessment findings must concern the nurses MOST before administering nitroglycerine?
- A. Blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg
- B. Heart rate of 90 bpm
- C. Blood sugar of 12 mmol/L
- D. Blood pressure of 190/110 mmHg
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Patient History: The patient has angina pectoris, which means they have episodes of chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle. Nitroglycerin is a common medication used to relieve this pain by dilating blood vessels.
* Nitroglycerin Mechanism: Nitroglycerin works by relaxing and widening blood vessels, which decreases the workload on the heart and increases blood flow to the heart muscle. This process typically lowers blood pressure.
* Assessment Concerns:
* Heart rate of 90 bpm: This is within the normal range and does not typically contraindicate the use of nitroglycerin.
* Blood sugar of 12 mmol/L: Elevated blood sugar is concerning but not directly affected by nitroglycerin administration.
* Blood pressure of 190/110 mmHg: This is high and nitroglycerin can help reduce it. High blood pressure is often treated with nitroglycerin.
* Blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg: This is hypotension (low blood pressure). Since nitroglycerin lowers blood pressure further, administering it to a patient withalready low blood pressure can lead to severe hypotension, which is life-threatening.
Conclusion: The most concerning finding is the low blood pressure (80/60 mmHg) because administering nitroglycerin in this situation can further lower the blood pressure to dangerous levels.References:
NCLEX-RN review guides, pharmacology textbooks, clinical guidelines on the management of angina pectoris and nitroglycerin use.
NEW QUESTION # 63
A nurse is visiting an Asian family and found that both parents have cardiac problems. The nurse is aware of Asian genetic predisposition to cardiovascular diseases.
The nurse assessment falls below which of the following cultural assessment category?
- A. Socio-cultural practices
- B. Cultural dietary practices
- C. Bio-cultural factors
- D. Ethnic/racial background
Answer: C
Explanation:
When assessing the health of a family, considering their genetic predispositions to certain conditions falls under the category of bio-cultural factors. These factors include genetic traits, physical characteristics, and biological variations that can influence health. In this case, the nurse's awareness of the genetic predisposition of Asian individuals to cardiovascular diseases helps in understanding the family's health risks.
NEW QUESTION # 64
The destruction of the alveoli walls is defined as:
- A. Bronchitis
- B. Bronchiolitis
- C. Asthma
- D. Emphysema
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Definition of Emphysema:
* Emphysema is a chronic lung condition characterized by the destruction of the alveoli (air sacs) walls. This leads to reduced surface area for gas exchange and difficulty in breathing.
* It is a major component of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD).
* Differentiation from Other Conditions:
* Asthma:A condition where the airways become inflamed and narrowed.
* Bronchitis:Inflammation of the bronchial tubes, often resulting in cough and mucus production.
* Bronchiolitis:Inflammation of the small airways (bronchioles), commonly seen in children.
References:
* American Lung Association (ALA)
* National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI)
NEW QUESTION # 65
A neurologist has just disclosed to the parents of a two-month-old child that their child has cerebral palsy. The parents are extremely anxious and tensed.
Which of the following should be the INITIAL supportive measure for the parent?
- A. Helping them adjust the home environment according to the child's need
- B. Counseling them about the diagnosis and address their concerns
- C. Encouraging them to read books about cerebral palsy
- D. Introducing them to a family and community support group
Answer: B
Explanation:
The initial supportive measure for parents who have just received a diagnosis of cerebral palsy for their child should be direct counseling. This involves providing clear, compassionate, and thorough information about the diagnosis, addressing their immediate concerns, and helping them understand what cerebral palsy means for their child's future. This step is crucial to help reduce their anxiety and tension. Encouraging reading, support groups, and home adjustments are important but secondary steps after initial counseling.
NEW QUESTION # 66
A nurse is assigned to provide health teaching about the prevention strategies for a patient who complains of frequent severe low back pain.
Which of the following exercises would the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Swimming
- B. Sit-ups
- C. Leg lifts
- D. Running
Answer: A
Explanation:
Swimming is an excellent exercise for individuals with low back pain as it is low-impact and helps strengthen the muscles supporting the back without putting undue stress on it. Sit-ups and leg lifts can strain the back and worsen pain, while running is a high-impact activity that can also exacerbate back pain. Swimming promotes flexibility, strength, and cardiovascular health while minimizing the risk of further injury to the back.
NEW QUESTION # 67
A nurse is preparing to infuse 500 ml of 0.9% sodium chloride intravenous (IV) solution over 4 hours. The drip factor is 15 drops/ml.
Which of the following values is the flow rate in drops/minute?
- A. 32 drops/minute
- B. 134 drops/minute
- C. 133 drops/minute
- D. 31 drops/minute
Answer: A
Explanation:
To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), use the formula:
Flow rate (gtt/min) = (Total volume (ml) × Drop factor (gtt/ml)) / Time (minutes) Given:
* Total volume = 500 ml
* Drop factor = 15 gtt/ml
* Time = 4 hours (240 minutes)
Flow rate (gtt/min) = (500 ml × 15 gtt/ml) / 240 minutes = 7500 gtt / 240 minutes = 31.25 gtt/min Rounded to the nearest whole number, the flow rate is 32 drops/minute.
NEW QUESTION # 68
......
OMSB OMSB_OEN Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Topic | Details |
|---|---|
| Topic 1 |
|
| Topic 2 |
|
| Topic 3 |
|
| Topic 4 |
|
Best way to practice test for OMSB OMSB_OEN: https://freedumps.testpdf.com/OMSB_OEN-practice-test.html
